This topic is for students to ask questions about the Review for Exam 2.
For question 4, to use the quotient rule would I have to rewrite tan(x) as sin(x)/cos(x)?
That would certainly be a good first step!
for question 8, could the derivative of the area function be rewritten as A’(x)= 1/4(1000 - 4x) ?
Well, I guess that depends on what the area function is. 
Also, I can’t really say what your area function is without knowing how you’ve got the problem set up.
More importantly, though, I’m not sure why you’re writing down an area function. Your objective is to minimize the cost. Thus, I suppose you should write down a cost function in terms of the lengths that you see in the diagram. You can then use an equation for the area as a constraint to help you reduce the number of variables in the cost function down to one. At that point, you’ll find yourself finding a derivative of the cost function.
Could you solve #5 a step by step?
I’m also not sure about 5a.
Also on number 6, when we did f '(1) = 7/2. Why did we choose for it to be f '(1)?
For problem 2c, can you explain how you the sin(x)/(1+(cos(x)) turned into 0/2?
We are asked to compute (f^(-1))‘(0). That corresponds to f’(1), since f(1)=0.
More generally, the point (x,y) on the graph of f corresponds to (y,x) on the graph of f^(-1).
Just plug in x=0!!
And remember that sin(0) = 0 and cos(0)=1.
I will try to get to this later but but I’ve got quite a bit going on at the moment. 
oof I probably should have read part b lol
@mkane That looks great!! 